K
KYC
Senior Member
Mandarin
- Nov 8, 2009
- #1
Hello, there:
I have a question about comparative structure which confuses me.
I learned a rule from a English grammar book which says native speakers only use the sentence structure " be less---than" in more than one syllable.
So I am wondering if the sentence in my previous thread right or not.I post the sentence again.
I run less fast than he does.
Also, I am wondering if the sentence strcture is unatural to native speakers.
May I have your clarification?
Thanks a lot!
cuchuflete
Senior Member
Maine, EEUU
EEUU-inglés
- Nov 8, 2009
- #2
Hello KYC,
Beware of "rules" in grammar books. They may at first seem appealing, but they are not always correct. That may sound bold, but it is less bold than the declaration in your book. Take the "rule" as a useful generality.
Now to your specific question: I run less fast than he does.
It is not idiomatic. I would express the thought in other ways:
-He runs more quickly than I do.
-I don't run as fast as he does.
-I run more slowly than he runs.
Learning patterns of actual speech, rather than supposedly universal rules, may seem a grim prospect. It is by far less grim
than memorizing many so-called rules, only to discover later that one must also learn the many exceptions to them.
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Pbai
Member
New Jersey
American English
- Nov 8, 2009
- #3
That's a strange English rule, hmm...
"I run less fast than he does" sounds awkward to me, whereas: Edit:
"I run less quickly than he does" doesn't sound awkward.
Learning patterns of actual speech, rather than supposedly universal rules, may seem a grim prospect. It is by far less grim
than memorizing many so-called rules, only to discover later that one must also learn the many exceptions to them.
Ahh, English really does have many exceptions to its grammar "rules".
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K
KYC
Senior Member
Mandarin
- Nov 8, 2009
- #4
Thanks for your help!
I am much clearer.
T
Thomas Tompion
Member Emeritus
Southern England
English - England
- Nov 8, 2009
- #5
Can this be an AE thing? I'm not sure that I run less fast than he does sounds wrong to me. Certainly I run less quickly than he does sounds better.
I wonder if this has something to do with the form of adverbs, if the adjective turned adverb is less happy in a comparative construction.
I run fast. He runs faster. He runs faster than I do. He runs more quickly than I do - all fine He runs more fast than I do.
He runs fast. I run less quickly than he does - both I run less fast than he does
.I run much less fast than he does
!. I'm not sure about that last one.
sdgraham
Senior Member
Oregon, USA
USA English
- Nov 8, 2009
- #6
He runs fast. I run less quickly than he does - both
I run less fast than he does
.I run much less fast than he does
!.
It could be AE or it could just be me, but I cannot conceive of using "less fast," especially since we have the adverb "slowly" at our disposal.
"He runs more slowly than I," for example.
(Note that the above is for language demonstration only and not to be taken literally since I doubt there is anybody with two good legs who cannot outrun me )
E
ESOL Teacher Jana
Member
South Carolina
English - USA
- Jul 28, 2011
- #7
The question regarding the usage of "less fast" came up in my classroom today. I told the class it was awkward, but I couldn't come up with a good reason. I like sdgraham's response that "slowly" is more appropriate. "I run more slowly than he does." or "I run slower than he does." Also, since we wouldn't say, "He is "more fast" than I am," (because fast is a one-syllable word) it follows that we wouldn't say, "He is less fast than I am." Referring to a previous example, however, we would say, "He is more/less bold than I am." Sometimes we use the "more/less" comparative form instead of the "er" form for emphasis. In this case, I think "more bold" may be used to avoid confusion with the homophone "boulder".
Copyright
Member Emeritus
Penang
American English
- Jul 28, 2011
- #8
ESOL Teacher Jana said:
In this case, I think "more bold" may be used to avoid confusion with the homophone "boulder".
Mmm ... you're recommending saying "He is more bold than I am" -- rather than "He is bolder than I am" -- to keep people from thinking "He is boulder than I am" and picturing a big rock?
Thanks for the smile this morning ... and welcome to the forum.
E
ESOL Teacher Jana
Member
South Carolina
English - USA
- Jul 28, 2011
- #9
Yes, perhaps to keep from getting bowled over! I hear "He is more bold than I" more frequently than "He is bolder than I." I concede both are correct, of course.
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